Been wondering this for a while - why isn’t it standard procedure to rule out an autoimmune response (and T1) after an initial diagnosis of diabetes via elevated blood glucose or hba1c? Is it because the likelihood of T1, especially in adults, is low, relative to it being T2? Are the labs expensive (It looks like Labcorp tried billing my insurance over $1000 for my antibody test, while the agreed payment was under $100 total, of which I paid only 10%)?
I’m lucky in that my PCP considered T1 a possibility and decided to test for antibodies as the immediate next step after getting a 300+ fasting blood glucose result. But it seems for a lot of adult onset folks, that’s a rare outcome.
Would love input from folks in the medical field. Perhaps add some color on how doctors might determine not to order the blood tests (Ie things that might strongly indicate that its not T1).
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